tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5970683153008645393.post8242738510348313605..comments2024-01-09T16:17:22.327-06:00Comments on Bring the Books: Even the U.N. Gets ItAdam Parkerhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/05826908205996140341noreply@blogger.comBlogger1125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-5970683153008645393.post-5013970026935465382013-09-13T07:10:02.488-05:002013-09-13T07:10:02.488-05:00Adam,
I appreciate the article. You raise some que...Adam,<br />I appreciate the article. You raise some questions/comments in my mind.<br /><br />You said:<br />"Christianity has nothing unique to bring to the table in this particular area..." <br />-If what you are saying above is true, how is it that a fully consistent atheistic worldview, which denies a normative standard of any sort, can account for morality?<br />(I already understand your arguments from the NL perspective.)<br />What I am getting at is: A consistent presuppositional approach is entirely based on the fact that it is **only** the Christian worldview that accounts for logic, morality, order etc... What is presupposed in presuppositionalism is that morality is in fact inherently Christian. Atheists borrow from the Christian worldview in this regard, and cannot account for their knowledge, morality, ethics.. <br /><br />You say "This is natural to all human beings by God’s doing. It is the law of God written on the heart (Rom. 1:20) that condemns all men everywhere."<br />-I re-read your proof text. The context of this passage in relation to the surrounding verses is talking about what God has revealed (shown) to natural man, not what is written in his heart. This may seem like a minor quibble, but this does have larger implications in connection with other verses as well. <br /><br />Rom 2:15 is typically the proof text that is used to justify the law of God being written on natural man's heart. However, if you were to carefully read the verse and the context, you will realize that Paul is clear that he is saying that there are Gentiles (no definite article) who do not have the law (Torah) (v 14) in contrast to the Jews who do have the law (Torah)(Rom 2:17). <br />Then immediately after Paul declares that Gentiles who do not have the law (Torah, v 14), he says that they have the **work** of the law (Torah) (v 15) written on their hearts... NOT the law (Torah) itself.<br />It is this **work** of the law (Torah) that Gentiles have written in their hearts that functions through the conscience (or is the conscience) that provides moral guidance for Gentiles who do not formally have the Torah.. <br /><br />Based on this understanding, there is no indication in Rom 2:15 that supports the NL thesis. The entire context is about how the work of the Torah (work of the law of Moses, NOT "natural" law) is what Gentiles have. <br /><br />If we are to understand that Rom 1:20 and Rom 2:14-17 are in reference to what is **revealed** to man and that it is the **work** of the Torah written on Gentiles' hearts and NOT the actual law of God (Torah, NOT "natural" law), this changes the NL discussion. <br />These verses show that there is nothing inherent within man concerning a moral sense or "conscience" in the sense that you are using that word.<br /><br />This moral sense isn't what is inherent within man, but that it is **revealed** to him. <br />Even that phrase "written on the heart" implies that this is something that is given, not something that was axiomatically resident within man. <br /><br />There are other points that we could certainly go deeply into, but we can touch upon them later. <br /><br />Thanks for your time. Christopher Leehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/03901993614400205774noreply@blogger.com